Bethlehem:
The Messiah's Birthplace?
by
Messiah
truth
I. Introduction
The
Christian apologetic and missionary claim that Bethlehem is the
birthplace of the Messiah was briefly considered in another
essay1[1].
A more detailed analysis of the claim will be the focus of the
present essay.
In
the opening verse of the second chapter in the Gospel of Matthew, the
author declares that Bethlehem was the birthplace of Jesus:
Matthew
2:1(KJV) – Now
when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the
king, behold, there came wise men from the east to
Jerusalem, …
The
author then claims this event to be a "fulfillment" of a
prophecy found in the Hebrew Bible, which he states as follows:
Matthew
2:5-6(KJV) – (5) And they said unto him, In Bethlehem of
Judaea: for thus it is
written by the prophet, (6) And
thou Bethlehem, in the land of Juda, art not the least among the
princes of Juda: for out of thee shall come a Governor, that shall
rule my people Israel.
According
to Christian apologists and missionaries, Matthew 2:6 points to Micah
5:2 in their Old Testament; in the Hebrew Bible this is Micah 5:1.
Micah 5:1[2]2[2]
has thus become a popular Christian "proof-text"
in the apologist and missionary's portfolio.
A
careful analysis of the Hebrew text in Micah 5:1 demonstrates that
the false application by the Greek rendition of this verse in the New
Testament, and its subsequent mistranslation in the King James
Version (KJV) Old Testament (and in other Christian Bibles), are
inconsistent with the teachings of the Hebrew Bible. Moreover, the
KJV Old Testament's rendition of a key phrase in the verse is also
inconsistent with other instances of the same phrase elsewhere in the
King James Version Bible.
- II. Comparison of Jewish and Christian Translations, and the New Testament Application
Table
II-1 provides a side-by-side comparison between the verse from the
KJV New Testament, the KJV Old Testament rendition of the verse, and
a Jewish translation of the original verse. For reference, the
corresponding verse from the Hebrew Bible is also displayed in the
table. As was already pointed out above, note that the KJV Old
Testament verse number is different from the verse number as it
appears in the Hebrew Bible. The highlighted phrase in both the
Jewish and KJV translations corresponds to the highlighted phrase
shown in the Hebrew text.
Table
II-1 – Comparing Matthew 2:6 with Micah 5:1[2]
|
Hebrew
Text
|
||||
|
|
||||
|
King
James Version
New
Testament
|
King
James Version
"Old
Testament"
|
Jewish
Translation from the Hebrew
|
||
|
Matthew
2:6
|
Micah
5
|
|||
|
And
thou Bethlehem, in the land of Juda, art not the least among the
princes of Juda: for out of thee shall come a Governor, that
shall rule my people Israel. |
v.2 |
But
thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the
thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me
that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from
of old, from everlasting. |
v.1 |
And
you, Bethlehem Ephratah - you should have been the lowest amongst
the clans of Judah – from you [he] shall emerge for Me, to be a
ruler over Israel; and his origin is from old, from
ancient days. |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Aside
from the fact that Matthew 2:6 leaves out the last phrase of the
source verse and is, at best, a paraphrase of the quoted portion,
there are a number of problems with the Micah 5:2 rendition in the
KJV. These problems, as well as the truncated rendition of the verse
in the New Testament, will be explained in the analysis.
- III. Analysis of the Passage
To
help facilitate the analysis, the correct translation of Micah 5:1 is
separated into two segments:
Segment
A
Micah
5:1A – And you, Bethlehem Ephratah - you should have
been the lowest amongst the clans of Judah – from you [he] shall
emerge for Me, to be a ruler over Israel;
Segment
B
Micah
5:1B – and his origin is from old, from
ancient days.
Segment
A and Segment B will now be separately analyzed.
- Analysis of Segment A
Micah
5:1A – And you, Bethlehem Ephratah - you should have
been the lowest amongst the clans of Judah – from you [he] shall
emerge for Me, to be a ruler over Israel;
The
name Bethlehem, in the original Hebrew is (beit-lehem),
which literally means House of Lehem
[(lehem)
means bread, or (generic) food]. Therefore, the title
(beit-lehem)
may refer either to the town or to a clan with the name
(lehem). In the
case of Micah 5:1, the reference is to a clan. How can one
determine this?
The
first clue is found in the opening phrase of the verse, where the
Hebrew is (veatah
beit-lehem ephratah). The
term (veatah)
has the components (ve),
the preposition and, and (atah), the
pronoun you for the 2nd-person, singular, masculine
gender. Thus, (veatah)
translates as and you, using the 2nd-person,
singular, masculine gender pronoun (the KJV has but you
in Micah 5:2; note, however, how the KJV translators correctly render
this phrase as And thou in Mt 2:6!). The rest of the phrase
in Segment A is also cast in a 2nd-person,
singular, masculine gender conjugation. Following this term
(veatah) is the
phrase (beit-lehem
ephratah), where (ephratah) or,
alternatively, (ephrat), is an alternate
name for the town of Bethlehem in Judah in the Hebrew Bible, as seen
from the following example:
Genesis
35:19(KJV) - And Rachel died, and was buried in the way to
Ephrat
(ephrat), which
is Bethlehem (beit-lehem).
In
the Hebrew Bible, singular pronouns, such as (atah),
you, are often used interchangeably in both the singular and
plural context. In the case of Micah 5:1, (atah)
is a singular compound entity, a specific clan, so that the context
is the [plural, masculine] you. Though the singular usage is
the most common one, the plural application occurs as well (e.g.,
Exod 33:3, Deut 9:6). Therefore, the one being addressed here in
Micah 5:1 is (beit-lehem),
which is the name of a family, or clan, residing in the town of
(ephratah), Ephratah, i.e., in the town of
Bethlehem. According to this analysis, perhaps a more accurate
version of Segment A (and, thus, Micah 5:1) would be:
Micah
5:1A – And you, House
of Lehem
[from] Ephratah - you should have been the lowest
amongst the clans of Judah
– from you [he] shall emerge for Me, to be a ruler over Israel;
In
the expression (bealphei
yehudah), amongst
the clans of Judah, contains a plural possessive construct of the
Hebrew term (eleph), (alphei),
which is used in the context of clans of …. The most common
application of (eleph) in the Hebrew Bible
is a thousand, which is its general meaning. However, there
are instances in the Hebrew Bible where (eleph)
is used in reference to a portion of a tribe, i.e., a clan or family.
Micah 5:1 is one of these cases, and others are found at Numbers
31:5, Deuteronomy 33:17, Joshua 22:14, Judges 6:15, and 1 Samuel
10:19, 23:23. It is interesting to note that most translators (both
Jewish and Christian) are consistent in their (mis)translation of
this word in all but one of these instances, the one at Judges 6:15,
where the term (alpi) [1st-person,
singular conjugation of the noun (eleph)]
is correctly translated as my family. Although, in general,
it is not a serious contextual discrepancy when using a thousand
in place of a clan in the above mentioned places, the correct
context in Micah 5:1 is that the reference is to a [particular]
clan from the town of Bethlehem. This case is further supported
by the fact that members of a clan are frequently referred to by the
name of the clan, often derived from the name of its progenitor, as
is seen from the following example:
Numbers
3:27 - And of
Kohath, the Amramite
family, and the Izharite
family, and the Hebronite
family, and the Uzzielite
family; these are the
Kohathite families.
Regarding
someone from the Bethlehemite clan [(beit-ha'lahmi)],
the Hebrew Bible has passages such as the following:
1
Samuel 16:1 - And the L-rd said to Samuel, "Until
when will you mourn for Saul, that I have rejected him from reigning
over Israel? Fill your horn with oil, and go, I will send you to
Jesse the Bethlehemite
[(beit-ha'lahmi)],
for I have found among his sons a king for Me.
Another
reference in the Hebrew Bible is even more explicit:
1
Samuel 17:12 - And David was the son of this man from
Ephrat [(ephrati)]
of the House of Lehem
[(mi'beit-lehem)]
in Judah, whose name was Jesse, and he had eight sons; and the man,
who was elderly in Saul's time, was among the [respected] men.
In
the Hebrew language, which has no neuter gender, i.e., a separate
Hebrew word for it does not exist, cities and towns are
assigned the feminine gender. So, if it were the town of Bethlehem
being addressed in Micah 5:1, the opening term would have been
(veat), such as
in Jeremiah 50:24 and elsewhere, the components of which are
(ve), the preposition and,
and (at), the Biblical form of the pronoun
you for the 2nd-person, singular, feminine
gender. Consequently, (veat)
translates as and you, with the 2nd-person,
singular, feminine gender pronoun. Understanding this
difference is essential for the correct reading of this verse!
The
KJV translators, lacking the required level of proficiency of the
Hebrew language, did not recognize that a certain clan, the
House of Lehem, is being addressed in Micah
5:1[2]. Rather, from the sources they used, one of which was most
likely the Christian LXX (that which Christians mistakenly call the
Septuagint), it appeared to them that the town of Bethlehem is
being addressed here. Consequently, they characterize Bethlehem
as a small and insignificant town from the territory of Judah, in an
introductory phrase to the prophecy. Namely, that in spite of its
insignificance, the town will be the birthplace of the promised
Messiah.
However,
since it is the clan, the House of Lehem,
and not the town, that is being addressed here by Micah, it does not
matter in which town the Messiah will be born; rather, it is the
clan, the family, that is significant! The phrase in Segment B,
"and his origin is from old", simply means the
Messiah will come from a family with a long lineage.
How
can one learn more about the particular clan to which this verse
refers? The ancestry of the known members of the clan is a good
place from which to start the investigation, and it leads to a woman
named Ruth, a Moabitess, who is among the ancestors of King David.
Ruth was married to one of the two sons Elimelech and Naomi, a family
that hailed from Bethlehem.
A
famine in Judah forced Elimelech to take his family to a place that
had food, and they wound up in the Land of Moab. Originally,
Elimelech and Naomi’s plan was to go to Moab just to wait out the
famine, but they then decided to remain there, a decision that
eventually led to tragic consequences. Elimelech and Naomi's two
sons, Killion and Mahlon (Ephrathites from House of Lehem
[Ruth 1:2]), married Gentile women, Orpah and Ruth, respectively.
Elimelech and his two sons died while the family was in Moab, leaving
the three women, Naomi, Orpah, and Ruth, as widows. Naomi made plans
to return alone to her home in the Kingdom of Judah, and she
instructed her two daughters-in-law to go back to their people, the
Moabites. Orpah approached her mother-in-law, kissed her goodbye and
left. Ruth came over to Naomi, held on to her and did not let go.
Ruth informed Naomi that she was coming with her; and even though
Naomi attempted to dissuade her from returning to the famine in
Judah, Ruth insisted and said to her:
Ruth
1:16-17 – (16) … Do not entreat me to leave you, or to
desist from following you; for wherever you go, I will go; and where
you lodge, I will lodge; your
people shall be my people, and your G-d is my G-d; (17)
Wherever you die, will I die, and there will I be buried; the L-rd
may do so to me, and so may He continue, for [only] death will
separate me from you.
From
Ruth's declaration of her intentions to Naomi when she says, “…For
where you go, I will go; where you lodge, I will lodge; your
people are my people, and
your G-d is my G-d;…”, it is understood that
she converted to Judaism. But Ruth, a person of outstanding
character, had a problematic ancestry – she was a Moabite woman.
This is what the Torah instructs the Israelites about a Moabite:
Deuteronomy
23:4 - An Ammonite [(ammoni)]
and a Moabite [(mo'avi)]
shall not enter into the congregation of the L-rd; even the tenth
generation shall never enter into the congregation of the L-rd.
In
other words, Ammonites and Moabites were prohibited from ever
converting to Judaism. Note, however, that in the Hebrew text, the
terms (ammoni) and
(mo'avi) are used, terms that translate as an
Ammonite (male) and a Moabite (male), respectively. The
corresponding terms for a female, as used in the Hebrew Bible are,
(ammonit) and (mo'avit) [or
(mo'avi'yah)].
The
reason for the prohibition is stated immediately following it:
Deuteronomy
23:5-6 – (5) Because they did not greet you with bread
and water on the way, when you left Egypt, and because he [Moab]
hired Balaam the son of Beor from Pethor in Aram Naharaim against
you, to curse you. (6) But the L-rd, your G-d, did not want to listen
to Balaam. So the L-rd, your G-d, transformed the curse into a
blessing for you, because the L-rd, your G-d, loves you.
And
this is repeated at a much later time by Nehemiah:
Nehemiah
13:1-2 – (1) On that day the Book of Moses was read to
be heard by the people; and it was found written therein that an
Ammonite [(ammoni)] and a
Moabite [(mo'avi)] may not
enter into the congregation of G-d forever; (2) Because
they did not come to meet the people of Israel with bread and with
water, and [instead] hired Balaam against them, to curse them;
and our G-d turned the curse into a blessing.
Considering
this prohibition, how was Ruth the Moabitess able to "…
enter into the congregation of the L-rd…"? How could she
become the ancestor of the greatest king of the Jewish people, King
David? The Sages explain in the Babylonian Talmud (Tractate Yevamot,
76b; Tractate Ketubot, 7b) that this prohibition applies only to
Ammonite and Moabite men, and not to women. This is because only
a man was expected to leave his house and bring food and drink to the
traveler; a woman was not expected to do that for obvious reasons.
Thus, the interpretation of the law (Deut 23:4), which had to be
rendered by ten elders, that the prohibition on becoming one of the
assembly of the L-rd, i.e., to be admitted into the community of
Israel, applied only to Ammonite and Moabite men and not to Ammonite
and Moabite women. This clarified the law, and enabled Boaz to marry
Ruth the Moabitess. So, the (beit-lehem)
clan, with a history marred by Ruth's ancestry of a nation
that was excluded from Judaism, is characterized by the phrase, "you
SHOULD HAVE BEEN the LOWEST amongst the CLANS of Judah", in
Segment A. This phrase reflects the uneasiness people may
have had even with King David, whose great-grandmother was a
Moabitess. Yet, the fact is that out of this clan rose the
greatest king of Israel, and the promise is made that the Messiah
will also come from it.
This
passage is all about King David's ancestry, with the Messiah being
but a "by-product" of it. This fact is even confirmed by
the rendition in The New Jerusalem Bible (a Christian
translation), whose translators state the following in a footnote to
this verse (Micah 5:2; only the relevant portion of the footnote is
being quoted here):
“Micah
is thinking of the ancient origin of the dynasty of David, Rt
4:11,17,18-22; 1 S 17:12. The evangelists later interpreted this
passage as a prophecy of Christ’s birthplace.”
In
other words, while this passage does not rule out the town of
Bethlehem as being the Messiah's birthplace, as could be any other
place, the notion that it is his birthplace was introduced later, in
the New Testament, as an interpretation by the Gospel writers.
B. Segment B
Micah
5:1B – and his origin is from old, from
ancient days.
The
fact that Segment A of Micah 5:1 voids the positive
identification of Bethlehem as the Messiah's birthplace, creates a
serious problem for the Church. This problem is compounded by the
closing phrase in the Hebrew text in Segment B,
(mi'y'mei olam), from ancient days.
Micah,
who was a contemporary of the prophets Amos, Hosea, and Isaiah, and
of King Hezekiah (around 730 B.C.E.), states something special here,
namely, that the origin of the Messiah would be from
Bethlehem, from the long ago past, from ancient days.
However, this statement conflicts with Christian theology, since
Jesus is considered as having been around since the beginning of
time, since before the Creation, and the expression from ancient
days does not satisfy this condition. To "rectify"
this problem, many Christian translators simply replace ancient
days with days of eternity, or everlasting, or days
of time indefinite (see, e.g., KJV, NAS, NWT). How can one
determine who is telling the truth?
The
Hebrew expression (yemei
olam), ancient days, is used in Micah 5:1 with the
preposition (mi-), from, as
(mi'y'mei olam), from ancient days. Table
III.B-1 shows all six instances in the Hebrew Bible of the expression
(yemei
olam), ancient days, including its combinations with
various prepositions. Also shown in the table are the respective
renditions of these expressions in the KJV.
Table
III.B-1 – KJV renditions of the expression
(yemei olam)
in the Hebrew Bible
|
Hebrew
|
Pronunciation |
#
|
Reference |
Correct
Translation |
KJV
Rendition |
|
ye-ME-i
o-LAM |
2
|
Isaiah
63:9,11 |
the
days of old |
the
days of old |
|
|
kiy-ME-i
o-LAM |
3
|
Amos
9:11;
Micah
7:14;
Malachi
3:4 |
as
in days of old |
as
in the days of old |
|
|
miy-ME-i
o-LAM |
1
|
Micah
5:1[2] |
from
ancient days |
from
everlasting |
Note
that the expression is correctly translated in the KJV in five out of
the six cases as days of old, which is synonymous with ancient
days, yet at Micah 5:2 it is rendered as from everlasting.
What could have motivated the KJV translators to render the same
expression correctly in all but one place, the one exception being at
Micah 5:2, which speaks of the Messiah? Could it be that replacing
from ancient days with from everlasting in this passage
would "harmonize" this Old Testament prophecy with
Christian theology? Did the KJV translators engage here in an act of
"pious fraud"?
For
the sake of completeness and fairness, it should be noted that, in
contrast to the KJV (and several other Christian Bibles), some
Christian translators have correctly rendered this phrase, e.g., NAB,
NIV, NRSV, RSV, The New Jerusalem Bible, among others.
- Matthew 2:6
As
was demonstrated above, the phrase from ancient days brings
the reader back to King David and his ancestors, which created a
serious theological problem for Christianity. It was also shown how
the KJV translators attempted to "solve" this problem in
their rendition of Micah 5:2. The author of the Gospel of Matthew
apparently recognized this problem as he was attempting to construct
a cohesive scenario, and his creative way of dealing with the true
context of Micah 5:1[2] was to simply restates this verse:
Matthew
2:6(KJV) – And thou Bethlehem, in the land of Juda, art
not the least among the princes of Juda: for out of thee shall come a
Governor, that shall rule my people Israel.
Upon
comparing Matthew 2:6 with even the KJV rendition of Micah 5:1[2],
the following changes are evident in the part that corresponds to the
passage in the KJV equivalent of Segment A:
- U The name of the place, Ephratah, is absent from the verse.
- U A subtle change in context takes place, from "though thou be little among the thousands of Judah", in the KJV Old Testament, to "thou … art not the least among the princes of Juda", in the KJV New Testament.
- U The generic title of ruler in the KJV Old Testament is replaced with the specific position of Governor In the KJV New Testament.
As
was already noted earlier, the author of the Gospel of Matthew uses a
truncated version of Micah 5:1[2] in Matthew 2:6. Thus, the obvious
change is:
- U Segment B of the original verse was deleted
Clearly,
Segment A, being a rather straight forward passage that could
refer to the Messiah hailing from Bethlehem, required just a minor
amount of editing to get it to "line up" with the rest of
his story.
Regarding
Segment B, which is disastrous to Christian theology, the
author of the Gospel of Matthew does something interesting, as he
also does in other places as well (e.g., Mt 2:13). He deletes the
problematic part (Segment B) of Micah 5:1[2] so that it is
absent from Matthew 2:6; he only applied an edited version of Segment
A to what he wrote in Matthew 2:6. The problematic part would
have drawn the reader to the origin of the Messiah, some 200-300
years behind Micah on the historical time scale, to King David
himself.
The
author of the Gospel of Matthew refused to accept the words of the
Prophet Micah, because they describe Bethlehem as the least
significant of the clans and communities of Judah. How can that
be, if the Messiah is to be born there? The Messiah cannot be born
in the insignificant place that is the lowest on the totem pole.
This action demonstrates that the author of the Gospel of Matthew
knew and understood very little of the Hebrew Bible, and that he did
not understand that the reference here was to Ruth. So, in order to
tailor this passage to fit his paradigm, he not only applied a
portion of the verse out-of-context by dropping the problematic part
of it, but he also changed the context of that which is written in
the Hebrew Bible by reversing the you are to read you are
not.
In
contrast to the author of the Gospel of Matthew, the author of the
Gospel of Luke was somewhat more careful. While he insists that
Jesus was born in Bethlehem, he makes the correct connection, that it
was the city of David (Lk 2:4,11). There are other instances where
the author of the Gospel of Matthew, allegedly a Jew, made a mistake,
while the author of the Gospel of Luke, allegedly a Gentile, used
much more care in dealing with the same subject. One notable example
is the application of Zechariah 9:9-10 in the Gospels. As dealt with
in Matthew 21:1-7, the passage has Jesus coming into Jerusalem on two
animals, while in Luke 19:29-35, Jesus is said to be coming on one
animal.
IV. Summary
Is
Micah 5:1[2] a prophecy that the (Jewish) Messiah will be born in
Bethlehem? The Christian claim is that Jesus fulfilled this prophecy
by being born in Bethlehem. As was demonstrated in the analysis, the
town of Bethlehem was the place from which King David's family
originated, and this prophecy speaks of Bethlehem as the Messiah's
place of origin, though not necessarily his place of birth. The
Hebrew text clearly states that the Messiah's ancestors came from
Bethlehem.
Since
the KJV translation of the Hebrew Bible came many centuries after the
Gospel of Matthew was written, the only option available to Christian
translators for "harmonizing" Micah 5:2 with Christian
theology and Matthew 2:6 was to suitably alter the context of the
source verse. Since Christians generally study the New Testament
first, their theological ideas are well established by the time they
proceed to the Old Testament to look for the "pointers".
So that the discrepancies between Matthew 2:6 and Micah 5:2 are not
likely to even be noticed.
Using
the logic of the Christian claim, and considering the many thousands
of people having come from Bethlehem during its history, how is it
possible to identify which one of them was the Messiah? It is also
worth noting that, relative to the important messianic attributes
spelled out by the Jewish prophets in the Hebrew Bible, which Jesus
did not fulfill, being born in Bethlehem is inconsequential, even if
it were true.
Addressing Micah 5:2
By
Jim
Lippard
A
second claimed birth prophecy is that Jesus would be born in the city
of Bethlehem, cited in Matthew (2:1-6),
Luke (2:4-7),
and John's (7:42)
gospels. Of these, Matthew and John specifically refer to prophecy in
the Hebrew scriptures. The passage referred to is Micah
5:2,
which reads: "But as for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, too little to
be among the clans of Judah, from you one will go forth for me to be
ruler in Israel. His goings forth are from long ago, from the days of
eternity." "Ephrathah" is the ancient name of
Bethlehem (Genesis
35:19,
Ruth
4:11)
but, to confuse matters, "Bethlehem Ephrathah" is also the
name of a person: Bethlehem the son (or grandson) of Ephrathah (1
Chronicles 4:4,
2:50-51).
This prophecy could therefore refer to either a native of the town or
to a descendent of the person. If the latter, Jesus does not qualify
since neither of his alleged genealogies (more on these below) list
either Bethlehem or Ephrathah. If the former (more likely since
Bethlehem was the birthplace of King David, from whom the Messiah is
supposed to be descended), then Jesus qualifies by birthplace[4]
but fails to meet the condition of being "ruler in Israel."
Christians claim that this is a prophecy which will be fulfilled at
the Second Coming.
There
are various alleged genealogical prophecies about the ancestry of the
Messiah. It is claimed that Genesis
22:18
and 12:2-3
are prophecies that the Messiah will be a descendent of Abraham, but
these verses say nothing about the Messiah. They say simply that the
descendents of Abraham will be blessed. Other claimed prophecies
about the Messiah's ancestry are that he will be of the tribe of
Judah (Genesis
49:10,
Micah
5:2,
of the family line of Jesse (Isaiah
11:1, 10,
and of the house of David (Jeremiah
23:5,
2
Samuel 7:12-16,
and Psalms
132:11).
Some of these do appear to be genuine messianic prophecies, but
others simply seem to refer to future kings. All of these verses
refer to kings--and thus none have been fulfilled by Jesus.
But
the problems for these prophecies run even deeper. Is Jesus actually
of the tribe of Judah, the family line of Jesse, and the house of
David? The sole evidence for this is two sets of genealogies for
Jesus, in Matthew
1:1-17
and Luke
3:23-38.
Both of these trace Jesus' lineage through his father, Joseph. If the
virgin birth story is taken seriously, then Jesus lacks the proper
ancestry. On the other hand, if the genealogy in Matthew is taken
seriously, then Jesus has as an ancestor Jeconiah (Matthew
1:12),
of whom the prophet Jeremiah said, "Write this man down as
childless, a man who will not prosper in his days, for no man of his
descendants will prosper sitting on the throne of David or ruling
again in Judah." (Jeremiah
22:30)
The genealogy in Luke suffers from the same problem, since it
includes Shealtiel and Zerubbabel, both of whom were descendents of
Jeconiah.
Feel
free to contact me at b_zawadi@hotmail.com
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Matthew 2: Is it False, or Is it True? Copyright ©
2002, Uri Yosef for http://www.MessiahTruth.com.
All rights
reserved.
2[2]
The notation Micah 5:1[2] shows the verse number from the Hebrew
Bible first, followed by the corresponding verse number from the
Christian Old Testament shown in brackets
=================================================
True
Messiah - Properly Anointed;
False
Messiah - Smeared with Ointment
by
Messiah
truth
I. Introduction
The
ninth chapter in the Book of Daniel has been a popular component in
the portfolio of Christian apologists and missionaries. The passage
that is commonly extracted from this chapter as an example of a
definitive "messianic prophecy" is Daniel 9:24-27 because,
according to most Christian translations, it contains two direct
references to the Messiah (Dan 9:25-26), which are claimed to
be references to Jesus. With the help of mistranslations and some
mathematical hocus-pocus, they transform this passage into a prophecy
that allegedly foretells the coming of Jesus and his crucifixion.
The
analysis presented in this essay demonstrates that these claims
concerning Daniel 9:25-26 are inconsistent with the teachings of the
Hebrew Bible. Moreover, since these claims also include references
to being anointed, the anointing process, as defined and applied in
the Hebrew Bible, is cast into a template against which the
"anointing" of Jesus, as described in the New Testament, is
compared in order to test its validity.
- II. Christian and Jewish Translations of Daniel 9:25-26
Table
II-1 shows side-by-side English renditions and the Hebrew text of the
passage Daniel 9:25-26. The Hebrew term (mashia'h)
and its respective renditions in the two translations are shown in
highlighted form.
Table
II-1 – Daniel 9:25-26
|
King
James Version Translation
|
Jewish
Translation from the Hebrew
|
Hebrew
Text
|
|||
|
Daniel
9
|
|||||
|
25
|
Know
therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the
commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the
Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and
threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and
the wall, even in troublous times. |
And
you should know and understand that, from the emergence of the
word to restore and build Jerusalem until an
anointed ruler, [shall be] seven weeks; and [in]
sixty-two weeks it will be restored and be built, street and
moat, but in troubled times. |
|||
|
26
|
And
after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah
be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince
that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the
end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war
desolations are determined. |
And
after the sixty-two weeks, an
anointed one will be cut off, and [he] will be no
more; and the city and the Sanctuary will be destroyed by people
of the coming ruler, and his end will come about like a flood;
and by end of the war, there will be desolation. |
|||
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
A
significant disagreement exists between the two translations in their
respective renditions of the noun . A study of the applications of
this term in the Hebrew Bible helps resolve this issue.
- III. Review of Hebrew Terminology
According
to the Hebrew Bible, the men who were selected to fill the positions
of the high priest [(ha'kohen ha'gadol)] and
king [(melech)] had to go through a ritual
anointing ceremony. The Hebrew root verb (mashah),
[to] anoint, appears in the Hebrew Bible 70 times in various
conjugations. This verb is used on 63 occasions to describe an act
of anointing, i.e., applying a specially prepared oil or compound
to someone or something for the purpose of sanctification or
consecration; and on the seven remaining occasions, it is used in the
context of covering something with paint or oil for various other
purposes.
Someone
who went through the process of anointing was referred to as
(mashi'ah), an anointed one,
in the Hebrew Bible. The noun derives from the root verb , [to]
anoint, and it appears in various conjugations and forms in the
Hebrew Bible on 39 occasions. The salient fact about the noun is
that not one of these 39 instances refers to the Messiah. The
reason is that the usage of the noun as the present Hebrew term for
Messiah is a product of the first century B.C.E., which is
interesting information that emerged from research done on the Dead
Sea Scrolls. Around that time, the Jewish messianic vision
experienced a significant paradigm shift from the expectation of an
era (i.e., “End of Days”) to an expectation of a Jewish leader
who will deliver Israel ("Redeemer"). This fact alone
defeats the claim by Christian apologists and missionaries concerning
references to the Messiah in Daniel 9:25-26.
- IV. Application of the Noun in the Hebrew Bible
An
analysis of the 39 applications of the noun in the Hebrew Bible, and
how these are rendered in most Christian Bibles, provides the
Biblical evidence that refutes the claims concerning its occurrences
in Daniel 9:25-26. Table IV-1 shows the 39 applications of the noun
in the Hebrew Bible. Each form of the noun is shown separately
along with the frequency of occurrence, a pronunciation guide (CAPS
identify the accented syllable), the respective Scriptural citations,
the correct English translation, and the respective KJV rendition.
References indicate chapter and verse numbers in the Hebrew Bible;
verse numbers in Christian Bibles, if different from the Hebrew
Bible, are shown in brackets.
Table
IV-1 – The term in the Hebrew Bible and its KJV
renditions
|
Hebrew
Term
|
#
|
Pronunciation |
References |
Correct
Translation |
KJV
Rendition |
|
3
|
mah-SHEE-ah |
2
Sam 1:21 |
an
anointed |
anointed |
|
|
Dan
9:25 |
an
anointed |
The
Messiah |
|||
|
Dan
9:26 |
an
anointed
|
Messiah |
|||
|
4
|
ha'mah-SHEE-ah |
Lev
4:3,5,16,6:15[22] |
the
anointed |
[the
priest] that is anointed |
|
|
8
|
me-SHEE-ah |
1
Sam 24:6,10, 26:16; 2 Sam 1:14,16, 19:22[21], 23:1;
Lam
4:20 |
anointed
[of] |
anointed
[of] |
|
|
3
|
bim-SHEE-ah |
1
Sam 26:9,11,23 |
against
the anointed of - |
against
[the LORD's] anointed |
|
|
1
|
lim-SHEE-ah |
1
Sam 24:7 |
to
the anointed of - |
to
[the LORD's] anointed |
|
|
1
|
me-shee-HEE |
1
Sam 2:35 |
my
anointed |
mine
anointed |
|
|
1
|
lim-shee-HEE |
Ps
132:17 |
for/to
my anointed |
for
mine anointed |
|
|
6
|
me-shee-HEH-cha |
Hab
3:13; Ps 84:10[9], 89:39[38],52[51], 132:10; 2 Chron 6:42 |
your
anointed |
thine
anointed |
|
|
7
|
me-shee-HO |
1
Sam 2:10, 12:3,5, 16:6; Ps 2:2, 20:7[6], 28:8 |
his
anointed |
his
anointed, *[the LORD's] anointed |
|
|
3
|
lim-shee-HO |
2
Sam 22:51; Is 45:1; Ps 18:51[50] |
to
his anointed |
to
his anointed |
|
|
2
|
bim-shee-HAI |
Ps
105:15;
1
Chron 16:22 |
at/upon
my anointed |
[touch
not] mine anointed |
The
KJV rendition of the term differs from the generic an anointed
one in only two cases out of the 39 applications, with both
instances occurring in Daniel 9:25-26. The question is: "What
motivated the KJV translators to cast the term as a reference
to the Messiah in Daniel 9:25-26, particularly in view of the
historical fact that this association of the two terms came much
later than the Book of Daniel?"
A
related issue arises from the way some other Christian Bibles render
the noun in Daniel 9:25-26, as shown in Table IV-2.
Table
IV-2 – The term as rendered in other Christian
Bibles
|
Source |
Verse |
Source
Translation |
Correct
Translation |
|
Amplified
Bible (AMP) |
Daniel
9:25 |
the
Anointed One |
an
anointed one |
|
Daniel
9:26 |
|||
|
New
International Version (NIV) |
Daniel
9:25 |
the
Anointed One |
an
anointed one |
|
Daniel
9:26 |
|||
|
New
Living Translation (NLT) |
Daniel
9:25 |
the
Anointed One |
an
anointed one |
|
Daniel
9:26 |
|||
|
World
English Bible (WEB) |
Daniel
9:25 |
the
Anointed One |
an
anointed one |
|
Daniel
9:26 |
The
translation of as the Anointed One, although closer to the
correct an anointed one, still contains Christological bias,
though it is more subtle. The use of the definite article, the,
and the capitalization of the terms in the expression, Anointed
One, is a design that implicitly points to Jesus.
For
the sake of fairness, it should be noted, however, that not all
Christian Bibles have mistranslated in Daniel 9:25-26. Among the
Christian Bibles that translate the term correctly are: Basic
Bible in English (BBE), Revised Standard Version
(RSV), and New Revised Standard Version (NRSV).
- V. Anointing According to the Hebrew Bible
- The process of anointing
According
to the Hebrew Bible, the substance used and the ritual performed are
the two significant components of the anointing process.
- 1. The substance
In
order to be considered properly anointed, a king (or high priest) had
to be sprinkled with a special substance that was stored in a special
container, and which was prepared from pure olive oil, according to
the following formula:
Exodus
30:22-25 – (22) And the L-rd spoke to Moses, saying,
(23) "And you, take for yourself spices of the finest sort - of
pure myrrh five hundred [shekel weights]; of fragrant cinnamon half
of it, two hundred and fifty [shekel weights]; of fragrant cane two
hundred and fifty [shekel weights], (24) and of cassia five hundred
[shekel weights] according to the sacred shekel, and one hin of olive
oil. (25) And you shall make it onto an
oil of sacred anointment [(shemen
mish'hat-qodesh)] a
perfumed compound according to the art of the perfumer; it shall be
an oil of sacred anointment
[(shemen mish'hat-qodesh)]."
No
other substance is acceptable for anointing and, being a holy
substance, this anointing oil had to be stored in the (portable)
Tabernacle while the Israelites were in the wilderness, and in the
Temple in Jerusalem later on.
- 2. The ritual
Moses
was commanded to anoint his brother Aaron as the first high priest:
Exodus
29:7 – And then you
shall take the anointing oil, and pour [it] upon his head,
and anoint him.
The
Hebrew Bible contains several accounts of the anointing of royalty in
Israel.
- a. King Saul
Saul was anointed as King of Israel when the prophet Samuel poured the special oil on his head:
1
Samuel 10:1 - And
Samuel took the vial
of oil, and poured it on his [Saul's] head,
and kissed him. And he [Samuel] said, "Indeed, the L-rd has
anointed you to be a ruler over His inheritance."
- b. King David
David, the son of Jesse, was anointed as King of Israel when the prophet Samuel poured the special oil on his head:
1
Samuel 16:13 -
And Samuel took the
horn of oil, and anointed him
[David] in the midst of his brothers. And a spirit of the L-rd passed
over David from that day forth, and Samuel arose and went to Ramah.
- c. King Solomon
This is who anointed Solomon to be King of Israel, and how it was done:
1 Kings 1:34,39,45 - (34) And Zadok the [high] priest and Nathan the prophet shall anoint him [Solomon] there as king over Israel, and blow the horn and say, "[Long] live King Solomon."
(39) And Zadok the [High] Priest took the horn of oil from the Tabernacle [the Sanctuary] and anointed Solomon, and they blew the shofar [ram's horn], and all the people said, "Long live king Solomon."
(45) And Zadok the [high] priest and Nathan the prophet anointed him [Solomon] king in Gihon, and they came up from there rejoicing, and (therefore) the city was in an uproar; that is the noise you were hearing.
- A template for the anointing of kings
The
Biblical accounts of the anointing of the first three kings of
Israel, Saul, David, and Solomon, contain the necessary elements for
the construction of a template for the process of anointing royalty
of Israel, one of which will be the promised Jewish Messiah.
According to the Hebrew Bible, these elements are:
- [1] A special preparation from pure olive oil was used as the oil of anointing.
- [2] Being sacred, the anointing oil was stored in the Temple.
- [3] A universally recognized prophet performed the ritual of anointing a king.
- [4] The prophets used the vial of oil, or the horn of oil, to anoint the new king, not merely a vial of oil or a horn of oil.1[1]
- [5] The oil of anointing was poured only on the head.
- [6] Anointing was tantamount to crowning a king (or appointing a high priest).2[2]
- I. Anointing According to the New Testament
This
template for the anointing process can now be used to test the
validity of the anointing of Jesus, as deduced from the accounts in
the New Testament.
- The process of anointing
- 1. The substance
The
four Gospel authors describe the substance used on Jesus as follows:
Matthew
26:7-9(KJV) –
(7) There came unto him a woman having an alabaster
box of very
precious ointment,
and poured it on his head, as he sat at meat. (8) But when his
disciples saw it, they had indignation, saying, To what purpose is
this waste? (9) For this
ointment might have been sold for much, and given to the poor.
Mark
14:3-5(KJV) –
(3) And being in Bethany in the house of Simon the leper, as he sat
at meat, there came a woman having an alabaster
box of ointment
of spikenard very
precious; and she brake the box, and poured it on his head. (4) And
there were some that had indignation within themselves, and said, Why
was this waste of the ointment made? (5) For it
might have been sold for more than three hundred pence, and have been
given to the poor.
And they murmured against her.
Luke
7:37(KJV) - And,
behold, a woman in the city, which was a sinner, when she knew that
Jesus sat at meat in the Pharisee's house, brought an
alabaster box of ointment,
John
12:3-5(KJV) –
(3) Then took Mary a pound of ointment
of spikenard, very
costly, and anointed the feet of Jesus, and wiped his feet with her
hair: and the house was filled with the odour of the ointment. (4)
Then saith one of his disciples, Judas Iscariot, Simon's son, which
should betray him, (5) Why
was not this ointment sold for three hundred pence, and given to the
poor?
- 1. The ritual
All
four Gospel authors describe the manner in which Jesus was anointed:
Matthew
26:7(KJV) - There
came unto him a woman
having an alabaster box of very precious ointment, and poured
it on his head, as he
sat at meat.
Mark
14:3(KJV) - And
being in Bethany in the house of Simon the leper, as he sat at meat,
there came a woman
having an alabaster box of ointment of spikenard very precious; and
she brake the box, and poured
it on his head.
Luke
7:37-38,46(KJV) –
(37) And, behold, a
woman in the city, which was a sinner,
when she knew that Jesus sat at meat in the Pharisee's house, brought
an alabaster box of ointment, (38) And stood at his feet behind him
weeping, and began to wash his
feet with tears, and
did wipe them
with the hairs of her head, and kissed his
feet, and anointed
them with the ointment.
(46)
My head with oil thou
didst not anoint: but this woman hath anointed my feet with ointment.
John
11:2(KJV) - (It
was that Mary which
anointed the Lord with ointment,
and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother Lazarus was sick.)
John
12:3(KJV) - Then
took Mary
a pound of ointment of spikenard, very costly, and anointed
the feet of Jesus,
and wiped his feet with her hair: and the house was filled with the
odour of the ointment.
Moreover,
Jesus himself allegedly states the purpose of his anointing:
Matthew
26:12(KJV) - For
in that she hath poured
this ointment on my body,
she did it for my
burial.
Mark
14:8(KJV) - She
hath done what she could: she is come aforehand to
anoint my body to the burying.
- Elements of the ritual of anointing Jesus
The
accounts quoted from the Gospels contain the elements of the process
that was described as the anointing of Jesus, and these are listed in
the order of the elements in the template for the anointing process
developed above:
- [1] The substance used to anoint Jesus was an ointment of spikenard.3[3]
- [1] It is unknown from where the costly ointment of spikenard came. It clearly was not a sacred substance, since people complained about having wasted it by pouring it on Jesus rather than selling it and giving the money to the poor.
- [2] Jesus was anointed by a woman (Mary of Bethany, described as a sinner).
- [3] The ointment used on Jesus was contained in an alabaster box.4[4]
- [4] There are conflicting accounts in the New Testament about where on his body the anointing substance was applied to Jesus. The accounts in the Gospels of Matthew and Mark say it was applied to his head; while the accounts in the Gospels of Luke and John state it was applied to his feet only.
- [5] Jesus declared that his anointing was a preparation for burial, i.e., for death, and not for kingship.5[5]
- II. The Anointing of Jesus Contrasted with the Requirements in the Hebrew Bible
Table
VII-1 contains an element-by-element comparison of the components of
the anointing process in the template against the accounts described
in the Gospels. For each element, a yes/no
score indicates whether the respective component from the Gospel
accounts meets the specification set forth in the Hebrew Bible.
Table
VII-1 – Hebrew
Bible specifications versus New Testament accounts of anointing
|
Item
|
Hebrew
Bible Specifications
|
According
to the
New
Testament
|
Comments |
Valid?
|
|
[1]
|
The
oil of anointing was a special mixture of spices and pure olive
oil. |
The
substance used to anoint Jesus was an ointment of spikenard. |
Ointment
of spikenard, no matter how costly, cannot substitute for the
sacred special oil. |
NO
|
|
[2]
|
Being
sacred, the oil of anointing had to be stored in the Temple. |
The
spikenard was not sacred, and its source is unknown. |
Sacred
items were kept in the Temple, and were not offered for sale. |
NO
|
|
[3]
|
A
recognized prophet had to anoint a king. |
A
woman named Mary anointed Jesus. |
Did
a recognized prophet anoint Jesus? |
NO
|
|
[4]
|
A
special vial, or special horn, of the special anointing oil had
to be used in anointing a king. |
The
spikenard ointment used on Jesus came from an alabaster box. |
The
Hebrew Bible never speaks of alabaster containers used for
holding the oil of anointing. |
NO
|
|
[5]
|
The
oil of anointing was poured on the head only. |
2
accounts - head only;
2
accounts - feet only. |
Which
version of the account is the true one? |
NO
|
|
[6]
|
The
anointing was a preparation for kingship (or high priesthood). |
Jesus
declared his anointing was to prepare him for burial. |
Jesus
never reigned as the monarch over any kingdom. |
NO
|
This
comparison demonstrates that the anointing of Jesus, as described in
the New Testament, violates all the specifications for a valid
anointing of royalty in Israel as provided in the Hebrew Bible.
Conclusion:
Jesus was smeared with ointment and not properly anointed and,
for that reason alone, he was a false Messiah.
- III. Summary
Two
important and interconnected issues were addressed. The first
question concerned the Hebrew noun as it appears in Daniel
9:25-26:
- ¤ What is the correct translation of the Hebrew noun , which appears twice in the passage Daniel 9:25-26?
According
to most Christian translations, the term points to Jesus
either by being translated as [the] Messiah or the Anointed
One. A word study on all 39 occurrences in the Hebrew Bible of
the noun in its various forms demonstrated that the correct
translation is an anointed one, a "generic"
reference to two different individuals who were to appear on the
scene at some future time, neither of whom had any connection to the
Jewish Messiah.
The
question concerned the validity of the "anointing" of
Jesus, which arose from the translation of the
term in some Christian Bibles as the Anointed One:
- ¤ Did the "anointing" of Jesus, as described in the New Testament, conform to the specifications given in the Hebrew Bible?
To
help determine the validity of the "anointing" process
which the accounts in the New Testament describe, a template for the
anointing process of kings and high priests of Israel was constructed
from the specifications detailed in the Hebrew Bible. The relevant
elements of information were then extracted from the accounts in the
New Testament which describe the "anointing" of Jesus, and
these were compared, on an element-by-element basis against the
template. The analysis demonstrated that Jesus was not anointed
according to the specifications described in the Hebrew Bible.
Therefore,
since Jesus was never properly anointed according to the
specifications contained in the Hebrew Bible, the Scripture in force
during his lifetime, neither of the two applications of the term in
Daniel 9:25-26 can possibly point to him.
Feel
free to contact me at b_zawadi@hotmail.com
Return
to Homepage
1[1]
King David and his royal
descendants were anointed with the sacred oil poured from the
horn. According to the
Jewish Sages, this indicated the superiority of the Davidic kings
over the non-Davidic kings of Israel (e.g., Saul), who were anointed
using the vial.
2[2]
Saul, David, and Solomon all sat
on the throne as kings soon after being anointed. They successfully
fought those nations that were enemies of Israel. They
commanded entire governments, complete with soldiers, spies, tax
collectors, foreign ambassadors, treasuries, palace servants and
courts.
3[3]
The
American Heritage Dictionary
(Second College Edition, Houghton Mifflin Company, Publishers
[1991]), describes spikenard
as: "1.
An aromatic plant, Nardostachys
jatamansi,
of India, having rose-purple flowers. 2. A costly ointment of
antiquity, probably prepared from the spikenard."
4[4]
The authors of the New Testament refer to Jesus as the "son of
David", implying that he is from the royal line of King David:
Matthew
1:1(KJV)
- The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the
son of Abraham.
If, as claimed in the New Testament, Jesus were a bona fide king of
the Davidic dynasty, why was the anointing substance taken from an
alabaster box
and not from that special vessel called the
horn?
5[5]
The
New Testament is silent on whether Jesus sat on the throne of David
during his lifetime, and whether he led a Jewish army in any battles
against Israel's enemies and defeated them. Likewise, there is no
mention in the New Testament of Jesus being in command of an entire
political government.
.==================================================
A
Piercing Look at A False Claim
[Zechariah
12:10]
by
Messiah
Truth
I. Introduction
Zechariah
12:10 is a verse used by Christian apologists and missionaries as a
so-called "proof text" to support their claim that
the crucifixion of Jesus was foretold in the Hebrew Bible. Although
the passage is problematic even in its mistranslated forms that
appear in most Christian Bibles (as will be shown below), just a
slight modification in the way it is applied in one of the Gospels
supposedly "fixes" the problem. However, a closer
examination of this passage reveals that the imputed Christological
relevance is absurd.
II. The Hebrew Text and Several Christian and Jewish Translations
Table
II-1 displays the Hebrew text of Zechariah 12:10, along with five
Jewish translations and seven Christian translations. The New
American Standard Bible (NASB) shows Zechariah 12:10 pointing to two
passages in the New Testament and these, in turn, cross-reference
Zechariah 12:10. These passages, as quoted from the KJV, are shown
below Table II-1. some words and phrases are emboldened,
highlighted, or underlined in the Hebrew text, with the corresponding
words and phrases marked likewise in the various translations, and
these will all be addressed in the analysis that follows.
Table
II-1 – The Hebrew Text of Zechariah 12:10 with Christian
and Jewish Translations
|
Hebrew
Text of Zechariah 12:10 -
|
|
|
Jewish
Translations of Zechariah 12:10
|
|
|
Jewish
Publication Society Bible (1917) |
And
I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of
supplication; and they shall look unto
Me because
they have thrust him through; and they shall
mourn for him, as
one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness
for him, as one
that is in bitterness for his first-born. |
|
Judaica
Press NACH Series; translation by
R'
A. J. Rosenberg |
And
I will pour out upon the House of David and the
inhabitants of Jerusalem with a spirit of grace and
supplications. And they shall look to
me because
of those who have been thrust through [with swords],
and they shall mourn over it
as one mourns over an only son and shall be in bitterness,
therefore, as one is embittered over a firstborn son. |
|
The
Jerusalem Bible,
Koren
Publishing |
But
I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Yerushalayim the spirit of grace and of
supplication: and they shall look towards
me, regarding
those whom the nations have thrust through. And they
shall mourn for him
(that is slain) as one mourns for an only son, and shall
be in bitterness over him,
as one that is in bitterness for a firstborn. |
|
Soncino
Books of the Bible; edited by R' Dr. A. Cohen |
And
I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of
supplication; and they shall look unto
Me, because
they have thrust him through; and they shall mourn
for him, as one
mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for
him, as one that is in bitterness for his
first-born. |
|
ArtScroll
Stone Edition Tanach;
ArtScroll/Mesorah |
I
will pour upon the house of David and upon the inhabitants of
Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplications. They will
look toward Me
because of
those whom they have stabbed, they will mourn over
him as one mourns over an only [child], and be
embittered over him
like the embitterment over a [deceased] firstborn. |
|
Christian
Translations of Zechariah 12:10(1)
|
|
|
Darby
Translation |
And
I will pour upon the house of David and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem the spirit of grace and of
supplications; and they shall look on
me whom
they pierced, and they shall mourn for
him, as one mourneth for an only [son], and
shall be in bitterness for
him, as one that is in bitterness for [his]
firstborn. |
|
King
James Version (KJV) |
And
I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of
supplications: and they shall look upon
me whom
they have pierced, and they shall mourn for
him, as one mourneth for his only son, and
shall be in bitterness for
him, as one that is in bitterness for his
firstborn. |
|
New
American Standard Bible (NASB) |
I
will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of
Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of supplication, so that they
will look on Me
whom they
have pierced; and they will mourn for
Him, as one mourns for an only son, and they
will weep bitterly over Him
like the bitter weeping over a firstborn. |
|
New
International Version (NIV) |
And
I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants
of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will
look on me,
the one
they have pierced, and they will mourn for
him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve
bitterly for him
as one grieves for a firstborn son. |
|
New
Living Translation (NLT) |
Then
I will pour out a spirit of grace and prayer on the family
of David and on all the people of Jerusalem. They will
look on me
whom they
have pierced and mourn for
him as for an only son. They will grieve
bitterly for him
as for a firstborn son who has died. |
|
Revised
Standard Version (RSV) |
And
I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants
of Jerusalem a spirit of compassion and supplication, so that,
when they look on him
whom they
have pierced, they shall mourn for
him, as one mourns for an only child, and weep
bitterly over him,
as one weeps over a first-born. |
|
Young's
Literal Translation (YLT) |
And
I have poured on the house of David, And on the inhabitant
of Jerusalem, A spirit of grace and supplications, And they have
looked unto Me
whom they
pierced, And they have mourned over
it, Like a mourning over the only one, And they
have been in bitterness for
it, Like a bitterness over the first-born. |
1.
New Testament passages cross-referenced (in the NASB) with Zechariah
12:10:
John
19:37(KJV) - And again another scripture saith, They shall look
on him whom they
pierced.
Revelation
1:7(KJV) - Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see
him, and
they
also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail
because
of him. Even so, Amen.
It
is interesting to note that, in general, the Jewish translations and
the Christian translations, separately, are internally consistent.
However, these two groups of translations show significant
differences relative to each other in their renditions of the verse,
and these details will be examined below.
III. Overview of Christian and Jewish Interpretations
- A. Overview of the Christian Perspective
This
verse is perceived by Christians as foretelling the crucifixion of
Jesus and the grief that followed, a notion that is reinforced in New
Testament narratives. The author of the Gospel of John quotes almost
verbatim the specific phrase of the verse that allegedly foretells
the crucifixion and ensuing mourning, albeit with the help of some
revision of the text that appears in the Hebrew:
John
19:37(KJV) - And again another scripture saith, They
shall look on him
whom they pierced.
Then,
with some help from the Book of Revelation (believed to have the same
author as the Gospel of John), the connection with Zechariah 12:10 is
reinforced:
Revelation
1:7(KJV) - Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye
shall see him, and they also
which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because
of him. Even so, Amen.
The
passage in the Gospel of John which precedes the verse that allegedly
refers to Zechariah 12:10 sheds some light on the Christian scenario:
John
19:31-36(KJV) – (31) The Jews therefore, because it was
the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on
the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought
Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken
away. (32) Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first,
and of the other which was crucified with him. (33) But when
they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not
his legs: (34) But one of the soldiers with a spear
pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water. (35)
And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he
knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe. (36) For these
things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A
bone of him shall not be broken.
Crucifixion
was a horrible way to die. On the cross, without having the feet
supported in some manner, suspension from the hands or wrists nailed
to the crossbeam would cause the body's weight to collapse the chest
cavity and result in death by asphyxiation – a faster process.
However, when the feet were supported, either with a small wooden
pedestal underneath or by being nailed to the central-beam of the
cross, a person could stay alive for as much as several days.
Jewish
Law, however, required a prompt burial following a person's death:
Deuteronomy
21:22-23 – (22) And if a man were to commit a sin
deserving death, and he were to be put to death, and
you hanged him on a tree. (23) His
body shall not remain upon the tree overnight, rather you shall
surely bury him on that [same] day, for a hanged one is
a cursed of G-d; and you shall not defile your land, which the L-rd
your G-d gives you as an inheritance.
Thus,
during the era of the Roman occupation, it was customary for the Jews
to plead with the Romans to break the leg bones of Jewish people who
were crucified, in order to quicken their death and, thereby, enable
their burial within the required amount of time.
According
to the account in the Gospel of John, there was no need to break the
legs of Jesus. The Roman soldiers who approached Jesus perceived
that he was already dead, and then they stabbed his side with a sword
to confirm that he had expired. This act was depicted as yet another
prophecy fulfilled some 2000 years ago, and which also identified
Jesus with the Passover Lamb in the New Testament (e.g., 1 Cor
5:7), since the requirements spelled out in the Torah included the
prohibition against breaking any of it's bones:
Exodus
12:46 - In one house it shall be eaten; you shall not
bring from the house any of the meat outdoors; neither
shall you break any bone of it.
More
detailed verse-by-verse Christian interpretations of Zechariah 12:10,
which are beyond the scope of this essay, may be found in the
standard Christian sources, such as commentaries by Matthew Henry and
Jamieson, Fausset, & Brown.
- B. The Jewish Perspective
From
the Jewish perspective, two general Jewish interpretations of the
passage that contains Zechariah 12:10 are plausible. One view has it
as an historic Biblical event from the prophet's own era, while the
other considers it a prophecy of an event that will take place at
some time near the commencement of the messianic era.
- 1. Historic Event
The
predominant perspective on Zechariah 12:10 among the Jewish
commentators is that it describes the mourning over those Jews who
were slain while defending the Kingdom of Judah and Jerusalem. Those
who fell in the battle were the ones described as having been thrust
through with the swords and spears of soldiers from the attacking
nations. In other words, this verse describes a historical event
from the Biblical times around which this was written. Even S. R.
Driver, the noted Christian commentator, is at variance with many of
his colleagues since he views Zechariah 12:10 as follows:
"The
context points plainly to some historical event in the prophet's own
time, for which the people would eventually feel that sorrow here
described."
Driver
apparently recognized that the passage describes an historical event
from Zechariah's era.
- 2. Messianic Prophecy
The
other perspective on this passage, which originates in the Talmud,
actually shares with the Christian view the fact that it is a
messianic prophecy, except that, according to the traditional Jewish
concept of the Messiah, this prophecy has not yet been fulfilled.
Since
there is an ambiguity in the Hebrew text in terms of whether the
subject (i.e., the "victim") here is an individual or a
group – the particular pronouns used here are applied in both ways
in the Hebrew Bible – there are two ways to interpret this passage
within this messianic perspective. Both interpretations are
consistent with the Hebrew text as well as with Jewish tradition.
The
"singular pronoun scenario" depicts a great hero who will
fall in the battle of the nations against Jerusalem that was
described earlier in the chapter (Zech 12:3). Because this person
will be one of towering stature among the Jewish people, the mourning
for him will be great and widespread; the entire nation and all of
Jerusalem are described as being in a state of great mourning (Zech
12:12). But, this crying and mourning will lead people to repent and
return to observance of Torah, as had happened in previous times:
Numbers
14:39-40 – (39) And Moses spoke these words to all the
Children of Israel; and the
people mourned greatly. (40) And they arose early in
the morning, and they ascended to the top of the mountain, saying;
"Behold, we are here, and we
will go up to the place of which the L-rd has spoken, for we have
sinned."
This
particular scenario fits well with the Rabbinic "two Messiahs"
paradigm. According to this Talmudic tradition, the first "Messiah",
(mashi'ah ben
Yosef), Messiah son of Joseph, will be a hero out of
either the Tribe of Ephraim or the Tribe of Menasheh (recall that
Joseph's sons were Ephraim and Menasheh). He will fight, and be
killed in the Great War, an event that will be the catalyst for all
of Israel to turn to G-d and repent. After that,
(mashi'ah ben David),
Messiah son of David, the Davidic Messiah, will appear and
usher in the messianic era with its promised redemption of Israel.
The intensity of the sadness is quantified in Zechariah 12:11 by
comparing the mourning in Jerusalem with the mourning in the valley
of Megiddo. This reference points to the death of King Josiah, the
last of the great and righteous kings of Judah (2 Kgs 23:25), who was
killed in a battle with Pharaoh Necho, King of Egypt:
2
Kings 23:29-30 – (29) In his [Josiah's] days, Pharaoh
Necho, King of Egypt, went up against the King of Assyria by the
Euphrates River; and King Josiah went against him, and he
[Pharaoh Necho] killed him [Josiah] at Megiddo, when he
saw him. (30) And his servants transported him dead from Megiddo,
and [they] brought him to Jerusalem, and
[they] buried him in his grave; and the people of the
land took Jehoahaz the son of Josiah, and anointed him, and made him
king in his father’s stead.
2
Chronicles 35:22-24 – (22) Nevertheless, Josiah did not
turn his face from him [Pharao Necho], but disguised himself in order
to fight with him, and he did not pay heed to the words of Necho
[which came] from the mouth of G-d; and he came to fight in the
valley of Megiddo. (23) And the
archers shot at King Josiah; and the king said to his
servants, "Take me away, for I am badly wounded." (24) And
his servants took him from that chariot, and put him in the second
chariot that he had, and they brought him to Jerusalem, and
he died, and he was buried among the graves of his forefathers;
and all of Judah and Jerusalem were mourning for Josiah.
Following
Josiah's death, the mourning throughout the Kingdom of Judah and in
Jerusalem was immense. In the Hebrew Bible, this is alluded to by
Jeremiah, and recorded in the historical books:
Lamentations
4:20 - The breath
of our nostrils, the anointed of the L-rd, was captured in their
pits, of whom we said, "In his shadow we shall
live among the nations."
2
Chronicles 35:24-25 - (24) And his servants took him from
that chariot, and put him in the second chariot that he had, and they
brought him to Jerusalem, and he died, and he was buried among the
graves of his forefathers; and
all of Judah and Jerusalem were mourning for Josiah.
(25) And Jeremiah lamented Josiah; and
all the singing men and the singing women had spoken of Josiah in
their lamentations to this day, and made them a statute upon Israel;
and behold, they are written in the lamentations.
According
to the Jewish Sages, these descriptions also characterize the
magnitude of the grief that will prevail among Jews over the falling
of (mashi'ah ben
Yosef), Messiah son of Joseph.
In
the "plural pronoun scenario", the singular pronoun is
applied to a group of Jewish people, a usage that is common in the
Hebrew Bible (e.g., Hosea 11:1 has the Jewish people described via
the same singular pronoun, him). In Zechariah 12:10, the new
spirit that G-d will pour unto the Jewish people will motivate them
to look toward Him concerning the Jewish martyrs who fell in the
battle over Jerusalem before His divine intervention on their behalf.
Here, as was the case in the previous scenario, the intensity of the
mourning over those who will fall in the Great War of the future is
still reflected in the historical references that appear in Zechariah
12:11.
In
summary, the Jewish perspective on Zechariah 12:10 is that it may be
viewed as either an historical event that occurred in the prophet's
time or, alternatively, as a messianic prophecy that is yet to be
fulfilled. Neither of these interpretations agrees with, nor can
accommodate, the Christian view that it is a messianic prophecy that
was historically fulfilled with the death of Jesus.
- IV. Pronouns and Context: A Closer Look at the Verse
As
noted above, the Christian interpretation of this passage as
foretelling the crucifixion of Jesus is problematic. An analysis of
the KJV rendition, which represents a typical Christian translation
of Zechariah 12:10, will help illustrate some of the salient issues.
Zechariah
12:10(KJV) - And I will pour upon the house of David, and
upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of
supplications: and they shall look upon me whom
they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for
his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in
bitterness for his firstborn.
To
facilitate the analysis, the KJV rendition is divided into two
segments:
Zechariah
12:10A(KJV) - And I will pour upon the house of David, and
upon
the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications:
Zechariah
12:10B(KJV) - and they shall look upon me whom they have
pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only
son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness
for his firstborn.
The
segment Zechariah 12:10A(KJV) has two noteworthy aspects:
- Variations among virtually all translations, Jewish and Christian, are insignificant – they all agree on context and content.
- From all translations, Jewish and Christian, it is clear that the one speaking here is G-d (… I [G-d] will pour …)
The
segment Zechariah 12:10B(KJV) requires a detailed analysis.
- A. Who is "me" and who is "him"?
A
paraphrase of Zechariah 12:10B(KJV) will illustrate the way a
Christian might read it, which will also bring to light some of its
inherent problems:
And
they [the Jews {or the Romans}]
shall look upon me [Jesus] whom they
[the Romans] have pierced; and they [the
Jews] shall mourn for him [Jesus]
as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him
[Jesus] as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
Given
that G-d is the speaker, and that most Christians regard Jesus as an
integral part of the godhead (the Trinity), can the pronouns me
and him, as they appear in this passage, refer to the same
person, namely, Jesus? It should be clear that the prophet is
speaking here of not one, but of two distinct entities.
These pronouns, me and him, cannot refer to the same
entity simultaneously! Moreover, there is still the issue of the
pronoun I as used in Zechariah 12:10A. How does G-d's
speaking in the 1st-person in Zechariah 12:10A fit
in with the rest of the verse, Zechariah 12:10B?
- B. The New Testament to the Rescue?
Evidently,
the author of the Gospel of John was familiar with this passage from
the Book of Zechariah, and he understood its problematic nature
relative to the new religion. To interpret this passage as saying
that, at some future time, the Jewish people shall look unto Jesus
whom the Romans had pierced, did not appear to him to be what
Zechariah had in mind. So he decided to "rectify" this
problem by revising and abridging the passage, and "quotes"
it in this way:
John
19:37(KJV) - And again another scripture saith, They
shall look on him
whom they
pierced.
The
RSV translators utilized this version in the New Testament to revise
the context of Zechariah's own words in their Old Testament
version of Zechariah 12:10 (The Living Bible has a similar
rendition):
Zechariah
12:10(RSV) - And I will pour out on the house of David and
the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of compassion and supplication,
so that, when they
look on him
whom they
have pierced, they shall mourn for him,
as one mourns for an only child, and weep bitterly over him,
as one weeps over a first-born.
Although
this appears to solve the problem created by the use of two distinct
pronouns, it does not resolve the identity issue between the two
segments of this verse, Zechariah 12:10A&B. Moreover, the
RSV rendition is a deliberate revision of the Prophet's original
words designed to "harmonizing" this passage with the
Christian paradigm. The evidence for this allegation is presented
Table IV.B-1, which shows the Hebrew text, a Jewish translation, and
the RSV rendition of Zechariah 12:10B broken into three
components, with respective terms highlighted.
Table
IV.B-1 – Comparing RSV translation with Hebrew text and
Jewish translation
|
Revised
Standard Version Translation
|
Jewish
Translation from the Hebrew
|
Hebrew
Text
|
|
|
Zechariah
12:10B
|
|||
|
i
|
so
that, when they look on him
whom they have pierced, |
and
they shall look toward me
because of him who they pierced |
|
|
ii
|
they
shall mourn for him, as
one mourns for an only child, |
and
they shall mourn over him
as one mourns over an only son, |
|
|
iii
|
and
weep bitterly over him,
as one weeps over a first-born. |
and
be embittered over him
as one is embittered over a firstborn son. |
|
The
significant Hebrew pronouns in the respective phrases that comprise
Zechariah 12:10B are as follows:
- Zechariah 12:10B(i) has (elai), to me or toward me.
- Zechariah 12:10B(ii) has (alav), over him or upon him or for him.
- Zechariah 12:10B(iii) has (alav), over him or upon him or for him.
The
combination of the two terms, (elai) and
(alav), in the same verse is found elsewhere in the
Hebrew Bible, e.g., at Genesis 44:21, which the RSV correctly renders
as:
Genesis
44:21(RSV) - Then you said to your servants, "Bring
him down to me
[(elai)], that I may set my eyes
upon him
[(alav)]."
Is
there any doubt that the RSV rendition of Zechariah 12:10B(i)
is based on John 19:37 in the New Testament rather than on the Hebrew
text?
It
is also interesting to note that, according to the Gospel of John,
the prophecy was fulfilled at the time when the Roman soldiers
pierced the side of Jesus. Yet, neither in the New Testament nor in
recorded history is described the prophesied event that all
the inhabitants of Jerusalem would mourn for Jesus. In fact, the New
Testament portrays Jews; who were the overwhelming majority of
Jerusalem's population, as anything but compassionate and mournful
over the death of Jesus. This prophecy was not fulfilled when Jesus
died!
- C. How Well Did Christian Translators Know the Hebrew Language?
There
is yet another serious problem with the Christian renditions of this
verse, one that stems from a lack of knowledge and understanding of
the Hebrew language. Specifically, the problem concerns the
mistranslation of the Hebrew expression (et
asher-daqaru) found in Zechariah 12:10B(i), which
reads: because of him who they pierced [or because of the
ones who they pierced], when correctly translated.
The
Hebrew words (et) and
(asher) are ubiquitous in the Hebrew Bible.
(et) is a preposition that serves as the marker of
a definite direct object of a verb. In its root form, it is similar
to the definite article the in English. However, unlike the
case of the English language, (et)
can be conjugated, and thereby it becomes the objective case of the
respective pronoun, such as (oti), me
(1st-person, singular, masculine or feminine pronoun; as
in "He taught me."),
(ot'cha), you (2nd-person, singular,
masculine pronoun; as in "He taught you."),
etc. The word (et) may also serve
as the preposition with, and it can be conjugated in that
context as well, albeit differently, such as, (itti),
with me, (it'cha), with you,
etc. The Hebrew word (asher) is a
conjunction, a part of speech that connects other words or phrases.
(asher) can mean because or for,
that or which, who or whom, and it may
take on various other meanings when combined with prepositions.
When
(et) and (asher)
occur together as a phrase, and in the particular grammatical
structure, such as is found in Zechariah 12:10B(i), the phrase
(et asher) must be read as, because of
or concerning or regarding [something] or
simply because or that which, but not simply as
whom or the one, which are common in Christian
translations. The particular translation depends on the context of
the specific passage. The following example demonstrates this in
another passage which has a grammatical structure similar to
Zechariah 12:10B(i):
1
Samuel 30:23 – And David said, "You will not do so,
my brothers, concerning that
which [(et asher)] the
L-rd has given us, and He watched over us, and delivered the troop
that came against us into our hand.
The
KJV has a correct translation of that passage:
1
Samuel 30:23(KJV) – Then said David, Ye shall not do so,
my brethren, with that which
the LORD hath given us, who hath preserved us, and delivered the
company that came against us into our hand.
The
special application of this combination, (et asher)
appears to have been better understood by the writers of the
Christian Septuagint (LXX), in which appears the following
rendition of Zechariah 12:10B(i):
Zechariah
12:10B(i)(LXX) - and they shall look upon me, because
they have mocked me,
Although
still badly mistranslated and inaccurate, the LXX rendition
does not at all resemble the common Christian translations, and it
has the (et asher) at least partially
right.
- D. Zechariah 12:10 in Context
Once
the pronouns in this verse are properly understood, it becomes
evident that the Christian renditions of Zechariah 12:10 are
incompatible with the grammatical structure of the verse as well as
with context of the rest of the chapter.
The
passage Zechariah 12:8-14, when read in the original Hebrew text or
in a correct translation thereof, clearly shows that the Prophet
could not possibly have spoken of Jesus. The 12th Chapter
in the Book of Zechariah speaks of a war and does not describe the
event of the crucifixion. In Zechariah 12:7-8 the following promise
is made
Zechariah
12:7-8 – (7) And the L-rd will save the tents of
Judah first, so that the splendor of the House of David and the
splendor of the inhabitants of Jerusalem should not overwhelm Judah.
(8) On that day, the L-rd shall protect the inhabitants of Jerusalem,
and it shall come to pass on that day that even the weakest among
them shall be like David; and the House of David shall be as angels,
like an angel of the L-rd before them.
Jerusalem
and its people will be protected. Yet, we know from the historical
record that, less than 40 years after Jesus died, Jerusalem was
torched and destroyed by the Romans, and the inhabitants were
expelled and exiled. Another prophecy not fulfilled by Jesus.
Zechariah 12:9 foretells of nations being destroyed:
Zechariah
12:9 – And it shall come to pass on that day,
[that] I will seek to destroy all the nations that have come upon
Jerusalem.
Yet,
according to the historical record, no nations were destroyed during
the lifetime of Jesus, so that this, too, remains a prophecy not yet
fulfilled.
Finally,
the only son and firstborn in Zechariah 12:10 are
mentioned in the context of a deceased only son
and a deceased firstborn, i.e., any
only son and any firstborn who has died.
How could this possibly refer to Jesus? Was he an only son or
a firstborn? Was there such intense mourning for him
throughout Jerusalem and Judah when he died? Though Zechariah uses
the definite article (ha), the, in
both cases, (ha'yahid),
the only son, and [also ] (ha'bechor),
the firstborn, there is no name identified anywhere in the
surrounding text regarding any specific individual(s) to whom this
might apply, which is a common practice in the Hebrew Bible, as can
be seen from the following example:
Deuteronomy
21:15-16 – (15) If a man has two wives, one beloved and
another despised, and they have born him sons, the beloved and the
despised one; and if the
firstborn son [(ha'ben
ha'bechor)] is hers
who was hated; (16) and it will be on the day he [the husband]
bequeaths his property to his sons, that he will not be able to give
the son of the beloved one the birthright over the son of the
despised one, the
[real]
firstborn[(ha'bechor)].
Whenever
the same expression, (ha'bechor),
is used in reference to a specific individual, the name of that
person is found nearby:
Genesis
41:51 - And Joseph called the name of the
firstborn [(ha'bechor)]
Manasseh;
because "G-d has made me forget all my toil, and all my father’s
house."
Zechariah's
intent in using these generic phrases here, albeit inclusive of the
definite article, was to describe the intensity of the mourning in
Jerusalem and throughout the land, that it would be like the grief
over a deceased only son or firstborn.
It
should now be clear that the Christian renditions of Zechariah 12:10
are problematic relative to the Hebrew text. Although the Jewish
translations of this passage also show some differences, they are
consistent on the overall context, the proper application of the
respective pronouns, and the correct understanding of the Hebrew
expressions.
- V. Summary
Christian
apologists and missionaries make the claim that a single verse lifted
out of the 12th Chapter in the Book of Zechariah,
Zechariah 12:10, prophesies the crucifixion of Jesus.
The
piercing look that was taken at this verse, in the form of a detailed
analysis of this verse using the Hebrew grammar and contextual
consistency, demonstrated that its common Christian interpretation is
incompatible with both grammatical structure and correct context, and
cannot be supported from within the Hebrew Bible. It was shown that
the primary reason for this is that Christian interpretations are
based on mistranslated and altered texts from both parts of the
Christian Bible, and which has created irreconcilable problems
vis-à-vis both the Hebrew text and the historical record.
Source: http://www.messiahtruth.com/zec1210.html
Zechariah 12:10
"And
on that day I will seek to destroy all the nations that come against
Jerusalem."
Zechariah 12:9 (RSV)
Zechariah 12:9 (RSV)
by
Messiah
Truth
One
of the most dramatic scenes in the New Testament is Jesus'
crucifixion. It seems so tragic, yet the story tells us it was all a
fulfillment of prophecy:
John
19:33 But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead
already, they brake not his legs: [34] But one of the soldiers with a
spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
[35] And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he
knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe. [36] For these
things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of
him shall not be broken. [37] And again another scripture saith, They
shall look on him whom they pierced. (KJV)
This
passage would indicate that the piercing of Jesus was prophesied in
the Jewish Scriptures. Such a bold claim must surely be verified.
Zechariah
12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications:
and they shall look upon me whom they have
pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for
his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in
bitterness for his firstborn. (KJV)
The
Christian claim is that John 19:33 is the fulfillment of this
prophecy in Zechariah. The problems with this claim are with context
and translation.
Context
Zechariah
12:1 The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the
LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation
of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him. [2] Behold, I
will make Jerusalem a cup of trembling unto all the people round
about, when they shall be in the siege both against Judah and against
Jerusalem. (KJV)
These
two verses set up the background. At some future date, the nations of
the world will be gathered against the Jewish people, and will
besiege the Jerusalem.
Zechariah
12:3 And in that day will I make Jerusalem a burdensome stone for
all people: all that burden themselves with it shall be cut in
pieces, though all the people of the earth be gathered together
against it. [4] In that day, saith the LORD, I will smite every horse
with astonishment, and his rider with madness: and I will open mine
eyes upon the house of Judah, and will smite every horse of the
people with blindness. [5] And the governors of Judah shall say in
their heart, The inhabitants of Jerusalem shall be my strength in the
LORD of hosts their God. [6] In that day will I make the governors of
Judah like an hearth of fire among the wood, and like a torch of fire
in a sheaf; and they shall devour all the people round about, on the
right hand and on the left: and Jerusalem shall be inhabited again in
her own place, even in Jerusalem. (KJV)
This
siege is part of a tremendous war, the war of Gog and Magog. The Jews
shall fight back against the enemy nations, and they shall be
victorious.
Zechariah
12:7 The LORD also shall save the tents of Judah first, that the
glory of the house of David and the glory of the inhabitants of
Jerusalem do not magnify themselves against Judah. [8] In that day
shall the LORD defend the inhabitants of Jerusalem; and he that is
feeble among them at that day shall be as David; and the house of
David shall be as God, as the angel of the LORD before them. [9] And
it shall come to pass in that day, that I will seek to destroy all
the nations that come against Jerusalem.
Of
course, the real source of the victory will be from Heaven.
Zechariah
12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications:
and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall
mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in
bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
[11] In that day shall there be a great mourning in Jerusalem, as the
mourning of Hadadrimmon in the valley of Megiddon. [12] And the land
shall mourn, every family apart; the family of the house of David
apart, and their wives apart; the family of the house of Nathan
apart, and their wives apart; [13] The family of the house of Levi
apart, and their wives apart; the family of Shimei apart, and their
wives apart; [14] All the families that remain, every family apart,
and their wives apart.
The
concluding verses speak of someone who is pierced and dies. His death
will so shock the nation that the people will be moved to repentance
and mourning, an intense mourning of this person who is killed that
it would be as if they were mourning for a firstborn son. Verse 11
paints a rather dramatic picture of how widespread the mourning will
be by comparing this mourning to the mourning the people did over the
death of King Josiah, who was killed in battle against the Egyptians,
as told in 2 Kings 23:29-30. 2 Chronicles 35:22-25 tells that all of
Judah mourning for him.
Does
Jesus fit this picture? Three points prevent this:
1)
This scenario of war against the nations of the world didn't take
place in Jesus' time.
2)
The Jews (meaning the whole people) didn't mourn over Jesus' death
according to the New Testament account.
3)
This proof, like nearly all of Christianity's proofs, requires one to
assume the conclusion, that Jesus is the Messiah and that he's
special enough that the prophets would have written about him. If you
approach the verse without believing in Jesus, there's really no
reason to think that the verse refers to him.
Translation
The
translation of this verse is rather awkward. Let's give it a closer
look.
Zechariah
12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the
inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications:
and they shall look upon me whom they have
pierced, and they shall mourn for
him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in
bitterness for him, as one that
is in bitterness for his firstborn. (KJV)
The
speaker in this verse is the Lord, yet in this translation, it appear
that the Lord Himself is pierced. (Hence, the Christian connection,
because they believe that Jesus is G-d in the flesh.) However, the
rest of the verse would indicate that the Lord was speaking of
someone else. "For him" they shall mourn. "For
him" there shall be bitterness.
The
author of the Gospel of John apparently didn't see our verse from
Zechariah the same way that the King James Bible translated it.
John
19:37 And again another scripture saith, They
shall look on him whom they pierced.
Note
that in our verse from Zechariah, it reads "upon Me whom they
have pierced." In this verse from John, it's now "on him
whom they pierced." If G-d is the speaker, and He is the one
being pierced (as if such a thing were possible), then it is
reasonable to think that the rest of the verse would be consistent
with this. John's quote is consistent, although taken out of context.
John never saw the verse as the Lord being pierced, because John
clearly believed that Jesus and G-d were two separate entities, as
seen by the following:
John
14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come
[again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I
go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. (KJV)
The
context of the King James translation leads one to think that this is
a mistranslation. Examining the Hebrew text of the verse will confirm
this.
Zechariah
12:10
By
Biblical
Unitarian
First
of all, there are problems with the transmission of the Hebrew text
such that the original meaning is not clear. Thus there are versions
such as the NIV
above that make the sentence refer back to God and these versions
usually supply the word “me” or some equivalent. On the other
hand, there are other translators that see the “one whom they have
pierced” as referring to someone other than God, and those versions
usually supply the word “him.” An example of this is the Revised
Standard Version.
Zechariah
12:10 (RSV)
And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of compassion and supplication, so that, when they look on him whom they have pierced, they shall mourn for him, as one mourns for an only child, and weep bitterly over him, as one weeps over a first-born.
And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of compassion and supplication, so that, when they look on him whom they have pierced, they shall mourn for him, as one mourns for an only child, and weep bitterly over him, as one weeps over a first-born.
Translators
and commentators who believe that the word “pierced” should refer
back to the pronoun “him” cite textual variants that more clearly
read “him,” as well as the flow of the sentence which continues
with the word “him” in the phrase “they shall mourn for him”
and “grieve bitterly for him.”
The Jewish understanding of this verse has always been that the one
pierced was one in an intimate relationship with God, but there is no
record of any early Jewish commentator understanding Zechariah 12:10
to be saying that somehow Yahweh Himself would come into the flesh
and be pierced in the literal sense of the word. It is apparent to us
that the Revised
Standard Version has
a good translation of the verse and that Zechariah 12:10 is a
prophecy of the piercing of the promised Messiah.
Another
important point to make is that Zechariah 12:10 is quoted in John
19:37 after the Roman soldier thrust his spear into Christ’s side.
John 19:37 reads: “and, as another scripture says, ‘They will
look on the one they have pierced.” The
King James Version
translates John 19:37 as follows: “And again another scripture
saith, ‘They shall look on him whom they pierced.’”
The
different versions may disagree on the Hebrew text of Zechariah
12:10, but none of them disagree on the translation of the way it is
quoted in the New Testament. None of the versions have the word “me,”
and most of them supply the word “him” as does the KJV,
NASB
and RSV.
If the original reading of Zechariah 12:10 was “me, whom they have
pierced,” we can think of no reason that it would not be quoted
that way in the New Testament. On the other hand, if the reading of
Zechariah 12:10 in the RSV
and other versions is correct, then it makes perfect sense that the
verse would be quoted in the New Testament the way it is. We contend
that the New Testament quotation of Zechariah 12:10 gives us the
proper interpretation of the verse.
Not
only is Zechariah 12:10 quoted in John, but also it is alluded to in
Revelation. Revelation 1:7 says, “Look, he is coming with the
clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him; and
all the peoples of the earth will mourn because of him. So shall it
be! Amen.” Commentators freely admit that this verse alludes back
to Zechariah, and it uses the word “him,” not “me.” Thus we
conclude that the internal evidence of Scripture is conclusive that
the one pierced in Zechariah is not God but one in an intimate
relation with God, the Messiah.
The
third point I would make is that although we do not believe that “me”
is properly supplied in many versions of Zechariah 12:10, it
certainly is the case that God was “pierced” when the Messiah was
tortured and put to death. When Simeon met Joseph and Mary in the
Temple when they came to consecrate Jesus, he said to Mary, “A
sword will pierce your own soul too” (Luke 2:35). Commentators
freely admit that this statement is not referring to the physical
piercing of Mary in any way, but rather is referring to the grief
that Mary will endure as she watched her son be tortured and killed.
Thus Scripture gives us evidence that, if Zechariah said, “they
will look on [or “unto”] me who they have pierced,” then he was
saying that God’s heart would be pierced. If “me” is the true
reading in Zechariah 12:10, then the Bible tells us that both the
hearts of God the Father of the Messiah and Mary the mother of the
Messiah were pierced when Jesus their Son was tortured and killed.
Feel
free to contact me at b_zawadi@hotmail.com
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